Hello Doctor

About 67 days ago I had a moderate risk contact with a woman from a high-risk region, whose HIV status was unknown (according to her negative but untested). We had brief unprotected anal intercourse for about a minute at max, then I came back to my senses and pulled out quickly. I did not ejaculate and there was no blood. Within less than 24 hours after contact I started PEP (Truvada + Isentress) that I continued seamlessly for 28 days. The baseline test before PEP was negative and after 30 days post-contact, I had a 4. gen test that resulted also negative.

Meanwhile as I was on PEP, I met another lady and we have been in a relationship since. On my about 10th day of PEP, condom broke during vaginal contact and I ejaculated, just to realize the state of the condom afterwards.

After my negative result on the 30th day post-contact we had condomless intercourse multiple times. However she started showing signs of a cold/flu about a week ago, which are still partially present.

My questions are therefore:

Can it be possible that I had HIV and transmitted the infection to her during PEP on the 10th day, although I tested negative in the end because PEP worked on me? Is this possible at all?

How likely is it that PEP didn't work and my 28 day test was a false negative, therefore I transmitted the virus to her after the 30th day post-contact?

Can I rule put both scenarios if I test negative again (I will have another test tomorrow - day 68 post-contact). Please note that I never had any HIV symptom ever, I am circumcised and have had no other STDs by now).

The thought that I might have given her HIV drives me crazy and I feel very helpless.

Thank a lot in advance for your advise.